If I have not had sexual intercourse with my husband but we have been intimate with each other in other ways, does it make our marriage consummated? And do I need to observe Iddah after divorce?
If I have not had sexual intercourse with my husband but we have been intimate with each other in other ways, does it make our marriage consummated? And do I need to observe Iddah after divorce?
Zaid Alsalami, Shaykh Dr Zaid Alsalami is an Iraqi born scholar, raised in Australia. He obtained a BA from Al-Mustafa University, Qom, and an MA from the Islamic College in London. He also obtained a PhD from... Answered 2 years ago
Bismihi ta'ala
If the marriage has not been consummated, there will be no 'iddah for divorce and the wife will be entitled to half the mahr.
Consummating means sexual intercourse, and so there would be 'iddah if (1) there is intercourse, or (2) the husband's seminal fluid (somehow) entered the wife's vagina.
And Allah knows best.
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