Amina Inloes

Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the Islamic College in London and also the Managing Editor of the Journal of Shi'a Islamic Studies.

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answered 1 month ago

Many the battles that were fought during the expansion of the Arab-Muslim empires after the time of the Prophet (S) were the same sort of battles that any other empire or state engages in to look after its political, financial or economic interests, although it is true that, as a side effect, it contributed to the spread of Islam by establishing a ruling class who was Muslim. So, from that angle, there is nothing special about them to make them jihad fi sabil Allah.

However, if someone was fighting in defence or for other selfless reasons, this could be considered jihad, just as it would be considered jihad fi sabil Allah today if I risked my life to defend someone who is under attack. 

Perhaps for that reason, there is a dua in al-Sahifah al-Sajjadiyah where Imam Zayn al-Abidin (A) prays for the soldiers on the frontier who are defending the Muslim state against enemies. 

Also, even in times of jihad with the Prophet (S), whether or not fighting was counted as jihad was according to intention. For instance, some people might have gone to war for glory or financial gain, and so this is not the same thing as risking their lives or enduring battle solely for the sake of Allah. 

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answered 1 month ago

This is not "music" (please, no one get angry at me or insulted because I am calling this "music"!), but I found it interesting the way they have arranged the NASHEED in an orchestral manner, and it seems to fall into the category of "halal":

https://youtu.be/4fLB5XAteKU

Prohibitions are based on hadith. Interpretations of Islamic law which allow for use of musical instruments are based on reconsidering the applicability/correctness of those hadith or the cultural context.

For instance, the type of music that is mentioned in hadith was usually associated with licentious behaviour, alcohol, dancing slave girls, and other ethically problematic things, whereas elevator music does not have those connotations today. Still, it is good to consider that certain instruments may have positive or negative effects on people ethically or spiritually, and not to assume that everything is cultural context - God knows best.

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answer updated 1 month ago

There are some hadith along those lines. It has been suggested that these are forged hadith. In some cases, when the ayah is presented differently, with insertions, it has been suggested that this may have been an explanation or gloss by the speaker which was later misunderstood as a quotation of the entire ayah.

It is true that there are a few hadith along these lines both in Sunni and Shi'i texts.

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answered 2 months ago

It is generally held that "We" in the Qur'an is the "royal we", to express Allah's grandeur and status, similar to how kings refer to themselves as "We" rather than "I" in proclamations.

"We" is usually used in the Qur'an in verses which emphasise Allah's rule and command whereas "I" is used in verses which express Allah's nearness or care, and a direct relationship - for instance, "call upon me and I shall respond to you". 

Sometimes "We" seems to shift to "I", or vice versa, for rhetorical effect. (That is, to make the power of the language stronger.) 

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answer updated 2 months ago

The Qur'an and hadith (both Sunni and Shi'i) give the sense that the jinn exist in the same world as us. The Qur'an and hadith describe occasional interactions between humans and jinn on a physical level - for instance, seeing a jinn manifest as an animal (as in the story of the jinn who came to see Imam Ali in the Mosque of Kufa) or hearing their voices audibly. Another example would be the jinn working for the prophet Sulayman (A).

However, apart from those occasional interactions, usually jinn keep to themselves and human beings do not see them.

However, some mystics have held that there is a sort of veil between the human world and the jinn world, which you could call the barzakh. That is, humans and jinn subsist in the same realm, but in something akin to parallel dimensions. I am not aware of any basis for this in Qur'an and hadith, but it could be true. 

So do jinn live in the barzakh? To me, the best view is "maybe" and "it depends on what you call the barzakh". If one takes "barzakh" to mean something akin to "mundus imaginalis" - that is, the imaginal realm which humans access through dreams, visions, or imagination, it might be correct to say that jinn live in barzakh. After all, people usually encounter jinn in dreams or the inner realm (for instance, Shaytan whispering to the heart), rather than in physical life. This is similar to how people are more likely to have a dream or vision of a deceased person, such as Imam Husayn (A), rather than physically seeing them walking down the street.

If one takes barzakh to mean specifically the place where human spirits go after death but before the Resurrection... while this meaning of "barzakh" may have some relationship to the above, I am not aware of any texts which specifically say that deceased human spirits live in the same place as living/deceased jinn, although I don't think we have any texts that rule out any sort of interaction ever between living/deceased jinn and deceased humans.

In any case, it seems as if the existence of the human being after death is more similar to the jinn, because the human being in the barzakh is less encumbered by the physical body and able to move around more.

In fact, I don't think we have any texts that say what happens to jinn after they die but before the Resurrection - for instance, do they go to their own barzakh? - however, the Qur'an says that, after Resurrection and Judgment, the jinn who go to Hell and the humans who go to Hell are all mixed together in the same Hell. It does not specify whether the jinn who go to Heaven and the humans who go to Heaven go to the same Heaven.

Anyway, it can be quite difficult to make concrete statements about spiritual cosmology, metaphysical realities, or other things which are not tangible. Even if someone says something, it is really quite difficult to prove whether it is true or false, except in the case of Qur'an and accurate hadith, which we accept on the basis of them being divinely inspired or approved.

So, this, in short, is my understanding of what the Qur'an and hadith say, and also what some mystically inclined thinkers have said. God knows best!

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answered 2 months ago

I am sorry to hear about your challenge. If both of you are dedicated to the marriage, inshallah you will find a way to make it work and maybe you will both eventually find greater ease through working together to build your life financially and otherwise. 

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answered 2 months ago

Being sayed or non-sayed is wholly irrelevant here.

The criteria for marriage, from a shari'ah perspective, is that he is a Muslim, and the baseline criteria for being a Muslim is professing the shahadatayn (belief in Allah and the Prophet Muhammad).  

If he is deeply committed to his spiritual leader, it may be good to make sure you are comfortable with the spiritual leader's ideas, since, in my experience, when there is a conflict between a spiritual leader and a spouse, the spiritual leader usually wins. 

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answered 2 months ago

Inshallah, although it is possible that your hopes and dreams might change there, since much of what we hope for in the material world relates to our physical circumstances, physical bodies, social circumstances, and so forth. You may also discover that there are new things that you would like to live that you would not have dreamt of here!

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answer updated 2 months ago

'Allamah Tabataba'i mentions the view in this link. It is not the dominant view of Shi'i scholars today, but I think it makes sense.

https://www.al-islam.org/shining-sun-memory-allamah-tabatabai-sayyid-muh...

God knows best

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answered 2 months ago

There is some discussion of this topic here: https://www.al-islam.org/ask/is-it-the-case-that-only-men-are-allowed-to...

The main reason why it is unlikely that a woman will become a marja' today is not theoretical, since there may be many approaches to Islamic law, but rather is practical. That is, there are social forces that would push a woman off of the path of becoming a marja', and women do not have the same networking, educational, or social  support that men have and which people need to succeed in any field. (Although some Iranian women become mujtahids and there are structures in place in Iran to facilitate that, less so in other countries although it occurs in other countries also.) Furthermore, women who are religiously conservative are generally encouraged to avoid positions of public leadership or to avoid being publicly visible.

Maybe in the future it will be different.

However, it is worth considering that there are many forms of religious and spiritual leadership. While we focus mostly on the role of the marja' as the chief jurist, or chief legal expert, people require guidance and leadership in many areas of life, including family matters, spiritual guidance, ethics, politics, charitable work, and so forth. Some marja's do offer guidance in these areas also but not all do, as it is not possible for one person to specialize in every single thing or to do every single thing at one time. Furthermore, even within the Islamic sciences, there are other areas of expertise that are also important such as tafsir. So it is also valuable to become a leader or expert in other areas of religion, not only jurisprudence/law.

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answered 2 months ago

I am not aware of any specific du'a in the transmitted Sunni or Shi'i sources for this, but I guess you could just do a regular du'a and ask Allah to increase your height. God knows best.

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answer updated 2 months ago

This is a thoughtful question that shows reflection on the historical account.

Insofar as there is no answer mentioned in history books, it is not possible to give an answer. 

If I were to guess, perhaps it would have aroused too much suspicion to bring water, or perhaps it was an emotional and sudden moment and he was not thinking about things, or perhaps some other reason.

Ayatollah Motahhari was of the view that it is not correct that they were without water for 3 days and nights. See https://www.al-islam.org/al-tawhid/vol13-no3/ashura-misrepresentations-d...

I don't think there is historical evidence that they were without food, however, the lack of water is much more dire.

God knows best!