Sexual

100472

What is the implication if the wife has swallowed her husband's semen? Are her prayers not accepted for 40 days as in the case of consuming alcohol?

Zaid Alsalami, Shaykh Dr Zaid Alsalami is an Iraqi born scholar, raised in Australia. He obtained a BA from Al-Mustafa University, Qom, and an MA from the Islamic College in London. He also obtained a PhD from... Answered 1 day ago

Bismihi ta'ala

In our jurisprudence, semen of any sort is najis, and therefore it cannot be consumed, and it is haram to do so.

In this case, if she has done so intentionally, then she must repent to Allah ta'ala. If it was not intentional, then there is nothing for her to do.

In both cases, her prayers and other acts of worship are valid and accepted, as long as they are done in the correct and valid way.

And Allah knows best.

100500

Woman . Ghusl . Doubt . Sexual

If a woman always doubts whether the liquid coming out of her is due to lustful thoughts, which she doubts she ever had, or a regular discharge, is Ghusl obligatory on her?

Bismihi ta'ala

The discharge a woman experiences is tahir, even if it is due to lustful thoughts, as long as it was not an orgasm.

She does not need to do ghusl, or anything else.

And Allah knows best.

99257

Ghusl . Sexual

Is it acceptable to only clean the organ after having an ejaculation or it is necessary to perform the Ghusul?

Seyed Ali Shobayri, Seyed Ali Shobayri is of mixed Iranian and Scottish descent who found the path of the Ahlul Bayt (a) by his own research. He holds a BA in Islamic Studies from Middlesex University through the... Answered 3 weeks ago

Bismillah,

Asalamu Alaykom,

In order to pray and perform other Islamic rituals one must perform ghusl. However, one can delay performing the ghusl and doesn't need to do it immediately provided that the next salah will not become qada. One may before hand purify their organ to prevent one's clothes or body becoming najis.

May Allah grant you success

95675

Husband . Wife . Consent . Sexual

Is it important for a husband to take his wife's consent before sexual intimacy? What is the position if the wife is not willing on an occasion?

Bismihi ta'ala

We know that the one wajib thing a wife must observe towards her husband is "tamkīn", which means sexual availability.

Of course, this does not mean the husband can "force" himself onto his wife, or what is known in today's society as "marital rape". If this was the case, and the husband forces himself on the wife, then in reality their marriage has already failed and fallen apart.

A healthy husband/wife relationship also depends on their physical attraction towards each other and sexually satisfying each other. This is why the wife should aim towards sexually satisfying her husband, and the husband should also cater to his wife's needs.

Both also need to be considerate of the physical, mental and emotional state of each other. If she or is sick, or not in the mood, or upset for some reason, or tired, or anything else, and it's not an ongoing excuse, then they should be considerate and respect their spouse. Be patient, be understanding, think beyond just sexual satisfaction, and build the relationship between you and your spouse.

Of course, it should never be to humiliate or extract revenge or get back at the spouse. This would be sinful and haram.

Intimacy has its value when both sides are enjoying, and hence both the husband and wife should aim towards living together with a healthy intimate life and also adhere to what our Islamic akhlaq and laws wants from us.

With prayers for your success.

92111

Sexual . Spouse

Is it permissible to engage in sexual intercourse with your spouse under the open sky if you are in a private place where nobody else can see or hear you?

Sayyed Mohammad Al-Musawi, Sayyed Mohammad al-Musawi is originally from Iraq and heads up the World Ahlul Bayt Islamic League in London. Other than being involved in various humanitarian projects, he frequently responds to... Answered 4 months ago

Yes it is permissible if you are sure that no one at all can see you.

Wassalam.

91656

Ghusl . Sexual

Is it permissible for spouses to bathe together and be physically intimate while bathing?

Yes, it is allowed for husband and wife.

Wassalam.

91082

Najis . Sexual . Menstruation

When in the state of Haidh or Janabah does everything I touch with wet hands become Najis?

Bismillah,

Asalamu Alaykom,

Being in a state of janabah or hayd doesn't make your hands najis. The only times you would spread najasa is when you touch blood or one of the najis substances with a wet hand or body part and then spread it.

You can touch things with wet hands in either state and nothing would become najis.

Only some ulema state that the sweat of someone who has committed zina is najis.

May Allah grant you success

87636

Semen . Wife . Husband . Sexual

Is semen allowed to be in the mouth as long as it isn’t swallowed by the wife? Can a husband swallow his wife's fluid?

It is not allowed to swallow any Najis item and if you allow a Najis item in your mouth, you must spit it out and clean you mouth and lips with water.

Wassalam.

89881

Woman . Life . Husband . Marriage . Sexual . Friendship

Is it allowed for a married woman to discuss any details of her sex life with her husband with any female or male friends?

Bismillah,

Asalamu Alaykom,

Firstly a Muslim female shouldn't have male non-mahram friends. So this is already out of the question. Yes, interaction with the opposite gender at the workplace for example is permitted.

In regard to discussing private sexual matters with her female friends, this should be avoided. Unfortunately some women fall into this and divulge intimate details of their spouses.

If the woman genuinely needs advice related to sexual matters, she can speak or ask in a general sense without making it specific to herself.

May Allah grant you success

89888

Sexual

My wife says she is too old to have marital relations with me anymore. What are the acceptable Islamic options for me in this situation?

Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answer updated 4 months ago

If it is a situation you are unhappy with, you could try to change her mind. Sometimes, when women pass their "sexpiration date" [as I heard someone call it once :) ], and there is no biological/medical reason why this is the case, it isn't necessarily due to age. Rather, it is sometimes due to emotional/interpersonal dynamics in the marriage that discourage them from wanting to have a physical relationship. Sometimes it also due to frequent childbirth and not wanting to conceive again (which, I guess, probalby isn't a consideration in an older age).

Both men and women can vary throughout their lives in terms of how interested they are in having a physical relationship, and sometimes there are hormonal or medical reasons that affect this, including but not limited to health conditions and the side effects of medications, as well as lifestyle factors such as stress and exhaustion. So this may also be a factor.

[Of course every situation is different, I am just putting these out there as general possibilities]

If she is quite certain that she would like to close this chapter of her life, well, your formal Islamic options are the standard options. Either you could just accept it (this is usually what society encourages women to do in this situation), or you can take another wife. Or, perhaps she might be amenable to other forms of physical intimacy, if that works for you.

Anyway, life is rarely easily and ideal, and the interaction between the two genders is also rarely ideal and has its own lifelong challenges. Perhaps prayer to find the best solution is a good start.

88623

Sexual . Marriage . Iddah . Divorce . Consummation

If I have not had sexual intercourse with my husband but we have been intimate with each other in other ways, does it make our marriage consummated? And do I need to observe Iddah after divorce?

Intimate acts which do not include sexual intercourse do not mean that the marriage has been consummated. Marriage is consummated when sexual intercourse takes place. If there was no sexual intercourse, there will be no Iddah after divorce. Obviously you will then be entitled of half of the agreed Mahr, while if marriage was consummated, you will be entitled to the full Mahr.

Wassalam.

Sexual . Marriage . Iddah . Divorce . Consummation

If I have not had sexual intercourse with my husband but we have been intimate with each other in other ways, does it make our marriage consummated? And do I need to observe Iddah after divorce?

Bismihi ta'ala

If the marriage has not been consummated, there will be no 'iddah for divorce and the wife will be entitled to half the mahr.

Consummating means sexual intercourse, and so there would be 'iddah if (1) there is intercourse, or (2) the husband's seminal fluid (somehow) entered the wife's vagina.

And Allah knows best.