Man

A man is a male human. The term man is usually reserved for an adult male, with the term boy being the usual term for a male child or adolescent. However, the term man is also sometimes used to identify a male human, regardless of age, as in phrases such as "men's basketball".

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Zoheir Ali Esmail, Shaykh Zoheir Ali Esmail has a Bsc in Accounting and Finance from the LSE in London, and an MA in Islamic Studies from Middlesex University. He studied Arabic at Damascus University and holds a PhD... Answered 1 week ago

Bismillah

Thank you for your question. Below is the response from the office of Ayatullah Makarim Shirazi (hA)

May you always be successful:

Wa Alaykum Assalaam

If the Talaq formula is recited with all its conditions, Talaq is valid and she can get married after Iddah period. 

Issue No.2135- A man who divorces his wife must be sane, and as an obligatory precaution, he must also be mature, and he should divorce her out of his will. Hence, if someone compels him to divorce his wife, the divorce will be void. It is also necessary that he seriously intends to divorce. If, therefore, he pronounces the formula of divorce sarcastically, the divorce will not be valid.

Issue No.2136- Based on obligatory precaution, the formula for divorce should be pronounced in correct Arabic, and it is obligatory that two just men hear it. If the husband himself wishes to pronounce the formula for divorce, and his wife’s name is for example, Fatima, he should say:
زَوْجَتِي فاطِمَةُ طالِقٌ
“Zawjatī Fatima Ṭāliq”
(My wife Fatima is divorced)
And if he appoints another person as his representative to pronounce the formula of divorce, the representative should say:
زَوْجَةُ مُوَکِّلِي فاطِمَةُ طالِقٌ
“Zawjatu Muwakkilī Fatima Ṭāliq”
(Fatima, the wife of my client is divorced).

Issue No.2137- It is necessary that at the time of divorce, the woman is pure from ḥayḍ (menstrual blood) and nifās (lochia or birth bleeding), and that the husband should not have had sexual intercourse with her during that period of purity, and if he had sexual intercourse with his wife while she was in ḥayḍ or nifās preceded by purity, the divorce is not sufficient as an obligatory precaution, rather she should enter ḥayḍ once again and become pure, and then she can be divorced. (The details of these two conditions will be given in the succeeding issues).

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Zaid Alsalami, Shaykh Dr Zaid Alsalami is an Iraqi born scholar, raised in Australia. He obtained a BA from Al-Mustafa University, Qom, and an MA from the Islamic College in London. He also obtained a PhD from... Answered 1 week ago

Bismihi ta'ala

From a shar'i perspective, he is permitted to sleep on pure silk. The only prohibition is for a male to "wear" pure silk.

And Allah knows best. 

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Zaid Alsalami, Shaykh Dr Zaid Alsalami is an Iraqi born scholar, raised in Australia. He obtained a BA from Al-Mustafa University, Qom, and an MA from the Islamic College in London. He also obtained a PhD from... Answered 1 week ago

Bismihi ta'ala

It is haram for a male to wear "pure" silk, not mixed with any other material. But if it is satin, or a mixture of materials, then there would be no shar'i problem.

That being said, the Islamic etiquette of clothes is that a male wear clothes suitable for a man and brings about masculinity. The clothes do not necessarily need to be coarse or harsh, but also not soft and would suit more the feminine taste. 

With prayers for your success. 

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answer updated 4 weeks ago

Technically you are married (even if psychologically or socially you are single), so if you want to marry someone else, you should first get a divorce, and then observe iddah if necessary.

Istikhara is not appropriate for a thing which is inherently forbidden (and to marry someone else while you are married is forbidden).

This is why it is not a good idea to let a nikah without an actual marriage hang for a long time, whether it is as an engagement or after marriage. Of course it happens and I am not saying it is your fault personally, as usually it is the fault of society, but I am just saying it is not a healthy situation.

Anyway I hope you can resolve your marital situation soon (or, rather, dissolve it, if that is your intent).
 

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answered 4 weeks ago

There are a few reasons, including:

* Modesty (regarding explicit subjects, the Qur'an tends to be more modest and address men specifically as well as use euphemisms, even if both men and women are intended)
* Generality (zawj/azwaj can be understood in some cases to mean "spouses" in general and not specifically "wives" as it is often translated)
* In some cases, it is specifically addressing men and speaking about women (for instance, the verse about zihar when it talks about men divorcing their wives via zihar)

So it really depends on the verse. A good resource to look at for varying interpretations of verses is _The Study Quran_ edited by S. H. Nasr.

Hope that helps!

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answer updated 4 weeks ago

This question has been discussed to some degree here: https://www.al-islam.org/ask/topics/7744/questions-about-Houris

Anyway, it seems that this is said in the Qur'an as a form of encouragement (just as some things about Hell can be seen as a discouragement from doing certain things). Apparently this must have been or indeed must be encourgaging to men. As for why men are addressed and promised this instead of women, some might say it is out of modesty, although I might also suggest that perhaps men need a little more encouragement sometimes! :)

As for what virginity means in the Hereafter... that is more complicated question. One would assume that the physics of things is somewhat different there, and while there is a means for 2 beings to relate which is analagous to how 2 beings relate here, it is unlikely to involve all of the specific physiological details of earthly virginity.

There is also a certain logic behind saying that the huris are "not touched by jinn or men", since (a) it is generally held that jinn have their own Paradise and so they wouldn't be interacting with them anyway, and (b) there won't be people in Paradise until the judgment, so they wouldn't have had anyone to have a relationship with before. (c) Also since there are so many of them, perhaps they are all created as exact matches (soul-mates, if you will) to their human partners and not necessarily compatible with others.

As for women, seeing as it is said that we can more or less have whatever we want in Paradise, there is no reason what women should not have virgins, if that is what they would like.

That being said, I am sure you will agree that men are the cause of 90% of headaches for women in this world, so I would not be surprised if some women decide they would like some peace and quiet instead!

(With all apologies to our male colleagues who may completely disagree :) )

Anyway, Allah speaks to us according to our understanding in this world, when it comes to matters outside of this world, there is a certain amount of guesswork or theorizing when it comes to these questions. It is however an interesting question to ponder.

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Zaid Alsalami, Shaykh Dr Zaid Alsalami is an Iraqi born scholar, raised in Australia. He obtained a BA from Al-Mustafa University, Qom, and an MA from the Islamic College in London. He also obtained a PhD from... Answered 1 month ago

Bismihi ta'ala

In this situation, there would not be any problem in the surname he chooses, and hopefully he will somehow be able to find information about his family.

And Allah knows best.

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Amina Inloes, Amina Inloes is originally from the US and has a PhD in Islamic Studies from the University of Exeter on Shi'a hadith. She is the program leader for the MA Islamic Studies program at the... Answer updated 1 month ago

Yes.

Why would God punish or restrict a woman due to her paternal lineage to only allow her to marry a certain group of men, whereas other Muslim women are allowed to marry any Muslim man? 

However, I do think it's advisable to take sect into consideration when marrying, and to make sure that the husband and wife have compatible ideas about religion, especially if there is the possibility of children. However, this is general advice, not related to one's lineage.

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Sayyed Mohammad Al-Musawi, Sayyed Mohammad al-Musawi is originally from Iraq and heads up the World Ahlul Bayt Islamic League in London. Other than being involved in various humanitarian projects, he frequently responds to... Answered 1 month ago

Your wife has misunderstood the Islamic rule in this matter. Mahram is the person who is permanently forbidden for marriage with her under any circumstance for life e.g. her real brother , real uncle, real father, father in law, her son and son in law. Her sister's husband is not permanently forbidden to marry her, but only when her sister is his wife. If she dies, God forbid, or if she is divorced from him, marriage will be then allowed between this man and any of the unmarried sisters of his ex-wife.

Her sister's husband is not Mahram at all and must observe full Hijab in front of him like any other non Mahram man.

Wassalam.

Zaid Alsalami, Shaykh Dr Zaid Alsalami is an Iraqi born scholar, raised in Australia. He obtained a BA from Al-Mustafa University, Qom, and an MA from the Islamic College in London. He also obtained a PhD from... Answered 1 month ago

Bismihi ta'ala

It is very important for your respected wife to educate herself about the definition and rulings related to maḥram/non-maḥram cases. 

Unfortunately she is misinformed, and has only half of the facts correct.

In Islam, a man cannot marry two sisters at one time, but this does not mean that the wife's sister becomes maḥram to the husband, nor does it mean that the sister's husband becomes maḥram to the wife's sister.  

So, although he cannot marry his sister's wife as long as he is married to his wife, it still does not mean that she becomes maḥram to him. 

It is still haram for him to see her without hijab, or look at her with lust, or shake her hand, or be alone with her, and so on.

This is a view that all our jurists have. 

As for the case of her staying at their home, if all other shar'i matters are observed, yes she can. 

And Allah knows best. 

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Sayyed Mohammad Al-Musawi, Sayyed Mohammad al-Musawi is originally from Iraq and heads up the World Ahlul Bayt Islamic League in London. Other than being involved in various humanitarian projects, he frequently responds to... Answer updated 1 month ago

No one seeks or supplicates for evil, knowing that it is from evil, but many human beings seek and supplicate and try to get something which is in fact bad and evils for them but they do not know that at that time. That is why we read in the next sentence in the same verse : Human being is hasty.
Hasty desires are bad and can lead man to evil with out his knowledge. Man needs to think properly before seeking anything and ponder on the possible sequences. A narration from Imam Jafar Al-Sadiq (AS) says: "Distinguish the way which saves you from the way which destroys you, so that you should never seek what can destroy you thinking that is will save you. Allah (SWT) says: Man seeks evil as he seeks good, and the man is hasty." Tafseer Al-Amthal, V. 8, P.418.

Wassalam.

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Zaid Alsalami, Shaykh Dr Zaid Alsalami is an Iraqi born scholar, raised in Australia. He obtained a BA from Al-Mustafa University, Qom, and an MA from the Islamic College in London. He also obtained a PhD from... Answered 1 month ago

Bismihi ta'ala 

This is an interesting question, and it can be tackled from different angles.

In general, the ruling is that a female (mahram or non-mahram) cannot pray beside or in front of a male. This is not purely a matter of preventing men from unlawful glancing, because if that was the case, then a wife could pray in front of a husband.

Islam focuses on elevating the status of a women beyond her being sexualised by others, and even by herself. This can be seen not only in mandating hijab, but even in the obligatory or recommended (mustahab) acts in prayer, like how she prostrates, and how she stands back up. 

This is all for the purpose of preserving her modesty, and also to eliminate any likelihood of a lustful gaze (haram or halal), during prayer in particular, for the purpose of gaining that absolute concentration in prayer. 

Of course, we are assuming that this is just one of the reasons behind the ruling. It's similar to the story of Prophet Moses (a.s.) and the daughters of Prophet Shu'ayb (a.s.). However, the reality is that like many other rulings, we do not have the precise reason for it. There could certainly be more reasons.We are just assuming that it is a matter of convenience and a spiritual matter for concentration, but it could be more than that. 

The main issue is in prayer we need to attain ḥudhūr al-qalb, which is presence of the heart.We need to be concentrating completely on our prayer, and remove anything that would distract us. 

We understand that it is also the very natural structure of the female that Almighty God has created with her beauty and attraction that could contribute to a male (her mahram or non-mahram) being distracting and glancing at her. 

Please look at all the other rulings for prayer, which can also hint to how important it is to avoid loss of concentration, like praying in front of an image, etc.

It could also be for convenience, so a woman does not feel embarrassed or exposed when she is bending down for ruku' or sujud.

And so on. 

Furthermore, please refer to your Marja' taqleed on this ruling, because there are some jurists who consider it mustahab, and not wajib.

And Allah knows best.